FINAL ANSWER KEY
Paper: Various related Acts (Paper II)
Medium of Question: English
Date of Examination 23022019
Question1:The term “plaintiff'’ for the purpose of Limitation Act has been defined in _________.
A:2(i)
B:2(h)
C:2(a)
D:2(c)
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question2:In an appeal filed by the appellant beyond the period of limitation, but the respondent did not raise the objection regarding period of limitation. The court ___________. A:Shall dismiss the appeal
B:Cannot dismiss the appeal
C:may exercise discretion
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question3:Which of the following is correct regarding the time of institution of suit in ordinary case?
A:When the summons received by the defendant
B:When the plaint is presented to the proper officer
C:When the defendant appears before the court
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question4 :In a case the complainant send demand notice and the postal authority intimated the date of delivery of demand notice. The imitation shall begin ______________. A:From the date on which the demand notice posted
B:From the date on which the demand notice delivered
C:From the date on which the acknowledgement received
D:Any of the above
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question5:The expiry of the prescribed period when the court is closed is dealt in ___________Limitation Act.
A:Section 6
B:Section 3
C:Section 4
D:Section 10
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question6:Which of the following is correct regarding the application of section 5 of Limitation Act?
A:It is applicable to every legal proceedings
B:It is not applicable to appeal proceedings
C:It is applicable to appeal or any application other than application under Or. 21 of CPC
D:None of the above are correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question7:For the application of section 6 of the Limitation Act, Which of the following categories of person can claim the benefit? Choose the correct option A:Minor
B:Lunatic
C:Idiot
D:Any of the above
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question8:Which of the following is correct regarding the disability of one of several persons jointly entitled to suit?
A:In all cases time will run against all
B:Time will not against all when discharge can be given without concurrence of all
C:Only in suit time will run against all
D:Time will run against all when discharge can be given without concurrence of all
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question9:For the purpose of application of section 12 of Limitation Act, which of the following is correct regarding the application of the day on which the such period is to be reckoned shall be eA:It is applicable only to suit
B:It is applicable only to appeals
C:It is applicable only to suit appeal or application
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question10:Which of the following option is correct regarding the institution of suit or application based on fraud?
A:The Limitation period will start on the date of commission of the act
B:The Limitation period will start on the date of cause of action
C:The limitation period will start on the date of discovery of fraud
D:The Limitation period will start on the date of fraud, but the period can be condoned
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question11:State the correct answer from the following when the leave to sue or appeal as a pauper is applied for is rejected
A:the period will not consider for any exclusion
B:The time during which the applicant has been prosecuting in good faith shall be excluded
C:the time shall always consider for exclusion
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question12:The principle embodied in section ___________can be applied in case when a party has been bonafide prosecuting for a wrong remedy
A:11
B:6
C:10
D:14
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question13:Which is the correct option for computing the period of limitation for a suit for possession by a purchaser at a sale in execution of decree? A:the time during which a proceeding to set aside the sale has been prosecuted shall be excluded
B:There is no exemption under any circumstance
C:The court is under a discretion to grant exemption in appropriate situation
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question14 :Which is the correct option regarding the requirement of a valid acknowledgment in writing according to section 18 of the Limitation Act? A:Writing
B:Signing
C:Before the expiration of period
D:All of these
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question15:section ____________ of the Limitation Act deals with effect of payment on account of debt or interest on Legacy A:18
B:19
C:17
D:21
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question16:The period of limitation in a suit for account and share of the profits of a dissolved partnership starts from __________. A:the date of dissolution
B:the date of agreement between partners
C:the date of notice of dissolution
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question17:What is the period of limitation of a suit for the balance of money advanced in payment of goods to be delivered A:Two years
B:Two months
C:Three months
D:Three years
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question18:choose the correct answer from the following with respect to the period of Iimitation
A:A. Suit in connection with bond where a day specified for payment the limitation period starts from the date of execution of bond B:Suit in connection with the bond where no such day is fixed for payment the limitation period stars from the date of executing the bond C:Both are correct
D:Both are not correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question19:when the period of limitation starts in a suit by surety against cosurety
A:When the surety pays creditor
B:When the principal debtor surety sue against the debtor
C:When the surety pays any thing in excess of his own share
D:None of these are correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question20:What is the period of limitation for a suit for recovery of arrears of rent?
A:Three years from the date where the arrears become due
B:Three years from the date of demand of arrears
C:Three years from the date of execution of rent deed
D:Two years from the date of execution of rent deed
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question21:The suit for compensation for malicious prosecution shall be filed with in _______________.
A:One year from the date on which the prosecution starts
B:One year from the date on which the acquittal of the plaintiff
C:Two years from the date on which the prosecution starts
D:Three years on which the prosecution starts
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question22:What is the period of limitation for setting aside the abatement of suit under CPC?
A:Two months
B:Three months
C:Sixty days
D:Ninety days
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question23:Choose the correct option regarding the period of limitation for a leave to appeal as pauper.
A:It shall be made with in 30 days to any court other than High Court
B:It shall be made with in 60 days to the High court
C:Only (1) is correct
D:Both (1) and (2) are correct
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question24 :The period of limitation for the review of judgment of a sub court under CPC is ______________
A:Thirty days from the decree
B:Sixty days from the decree
C:Three months from the date of decree
D:One months from the date of decree
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question25:What is the period of Iimitation for an appeal from an order of acquittal under sub section(3)of section 4 17 of Cr.P.C A:30 days from the date of order
B:30 days from the date of grant of special leave
C:60 days from the date of order
D:60 days from the date of grant of special leave
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question26:How many schedule are there in Limitation Act?
A:One
B:Two
C:Three
D:Four
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question27:The Civil Courts Act, 1957 is applicable to _________________.
A:Only to District Courts in Kerala
B:Only to small cause Courts in Kerala
C:All civil courts subordinate to High Court
D:All courts including High Courts
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question28:The Kerala Civil Courts Act commenced on _____________.
A:15/2/1997
B:15/12/1957
C:12/5/1957
D:15/2/1957
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question29:The different classes of civil courts are mentioned in section ___________ of the Civil Courts Act 1957
A:3
B:4
C:6
D:2
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question30:Who is the authority competent to establish the District Court?
A:Central Government
B:Supreme Court
C:State Government
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question31:The powers that can be exercised by the Additional District judge is ____________.
A:equivalent to District Judge
B:Subordinate to District Judge
C:Superior to District Judge
D:None of these are correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question32:Which of the following is the correct option with regard to the establishment of subordinate judges court?
A:It shall be made by the Central Government in consultation of Supreme Court
B:It shall be made by the State Government in consultation with the High Court
C:It shall be made by the High Court in consultation with the State Government
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question33:Who is competent to make work arrangement in case where more than one munsiff is appointed in a particular place? A: District Judge
B:Principal sub Judge
C:Principal Munsiff
D:High court
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question34 :The location of the court can be fixed or altered by _____________.
A:State Government in consultation with the High Court
B:High Court with out any consultation
C:High Court in consultation with State Government
D:State Government with out any requirement of consultation
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question35:The form and dimensions of the seal of the court shall be fixed by __________________.
A:Concerned Court
B:State Government
C:High Court
D:District Court
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question36:The local Limits of the jurisdiction of Munsiff's court is dealt in section __________ of Civil Courts Act
A:9
B:8
C:6
D:10
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question37:What is the pecuniary limits of Subordinate Judges Court?
A:5 lakhs
B:15 lakhs
C:No limit is prescribed
D:20 lakhs
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question38:Which of the following is correct regarding the appellate jurisdiction of District Court?
A:In all cases appeal from the decree of a munsiff court shall lie to District Court
B:In all cases appeal from the decree of a Subordinate Judge’s Court shall lie to District Court
C:Both (1) and (2) are correct
D:Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question39:Which of the following courts are not competent to try any suit, proceedings or other case to which he is a party or in which he is personally interested? A:District Court
B:Munsiff’s Court
C:Subordinate Judge’s Court
D:Any of these courts
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question4 0:The adjournment of Civil Court is dealt under section ______________ of the Civil Courts Act.
A:20
B:19
C:17
D:16
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question4 1:Which of the following is the correct option for the application of section 15 of the Civil Courts Act?
A:No District Judge or Subordinate judge shall hear any appeal against a decree or order passed by himself under any circumstances
B:No District Judge or Subordinate judge shall hear any appeal against a decree or order passed by himself provided the High Court can pass an order permitting to hear such cases C:The Subordinate judge shall not hear any appeal against a decree or order passed by himself under any circumstances
D:None of the above are correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question4 2:The maximum periods that High Court may permit the civil court under its control to adjourn from time to time is in aggregate of ______________days in a year A:30
B:60
C:4 5
D:15
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question4 3:Who is empowered to impose duties upon the Ministerial Staff of the Court?
A:High Court
B:District Court
C:Presiding Officer of the Court
D:State Government
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question4 4 :Section 20 A of the Civil Courts Act has been added with effect from ___________.
A:26/3/1957
B:23/6/1957
C:23/06/1959
D:26/3/1959
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question4 5:Who is empowered to assign duties to the committees constituted under section 20 B
A:State Government
B:High Court
C:Supreme court
D:District Court
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question4 6:The rule making power is prescribed under section ____________ of the Civil Courts Act.
A:20 A
B:20 D
C:20 C
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question4 7:Which is the correct option from the following legislations are repealed with the introduction of Civil Courts Act?
A:The Madras Civil courts Act
B:The Travancore Cochin Civil Courts Act
C:Only (1) is repealed
D:Both (1) and (2) are repealed
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question4 8:In order to make the laying procedure regarding the rule making under the Kerala Civil Courts Act, the total session required for the legislative assembly is ______________. A:14 days
B:21 days
C:two weeks
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question4 9:Which is correct regarding the rules regulating the constitution of committees under section 20 B?
A:It shall be made by the High Court in consultation with the Government
B:It shall be made by the Government in consultation with the High Court
C:It shall be made by the High court
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question50:Who is empowered to make rules for prescribing the contents of forms, books and registers of the Civil Courts?
A:State Government
B:Presiding officer of the Court
C:High Court
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question51:What is the maximum extension of time can be given by the court for paying the balance court fee as per Court Fees and Suit Valuation Act? A:15 days
B:two weeks
C:60 days
D:30 days
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question52:If the relief sought ancillary to the main relief ,the court fee is payable ____________.
A:Only on the value of main relief
B:Only on any of the relief
C:On the aggregate of all relief
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question53:In ordinary situation the determination of the market value of the property shall be __________.
A:as on the date of issuing notice
B:as on the date of presentation of plaint
C:as on the date of framing of issues
D:according to the discretion of the court
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question54 :Who is the authority to take decision as to the proper amount of court fee for a suit instituted before the High Court?
A:Judge of that court
B:Registrar
C:Taxing Officer
D:Court Officer
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question55:Who is the authority to depute officers to be designated as Court fee examiners?
A:Supreme Court
B:State Government
C:High Court
D:District Judge
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question56:The fee shall be computed in a suit for maintenance and annuities is _____________
A:On the amount claimed to be payable for one year
B:determined by the presiding officer of the court
C:based on the average of fifteen years
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question57:In a suit for injunction where the relief sought is with reference to any immovable property and where the plaintiff alleges that his title to the property is denied, the fee shall be computedA:Onehalf of the market value of the property
B:Onehalf of the market value of the property or on Rupees Five Hundred
C:On Rupees Five Hundred only
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question58:For the Purpose of Court fee, the suits relating to trust property is dealt in ____________ of the Act
A:Section 34
B:Section 23
C:Section 29
D:Section 28
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question59:What is the minimum value is to be made in the plaint for a suit relating to easement?
A:Rs.500/
B:No minimum is prescribed
C:Rs. 5000/
D:Rs. 1000/
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question60:Which is correct regarding preemption suits according to Court fees and Suit Valuation Act?
A:Fees shall always computed on least amount of market value or the amount of consideration
B:Fees shall always computed on market value
C:Fees shall always computed on the consideration amount
D:Fees shall be computed on the value determined by the court
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question61:Choose the correct option from the following
A:In a suit to recover the money on mortgage, the fee shall be computed on the amount claimed
B:Generally in a suit by a comortgage for the benefit of himself and other comortgagee, fee shall be computed on the amount claimed on the entire mortgage C:Both (1) and (2) are correct
D:Only (1) is correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question62:The court fee payable on a suit for partition according to section 37 sub Section 2 (ii) is ____________.
A:fifty rupees
B:Three hundred
C:Five thousand
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question63:When a suit is filed for setting aside the attachment of any movable or immovable property, the fee shall be computed on ______________. A:The market value of the property
B:The amount for which the property was attached
C:Any of (1) and (2)
D:Least of amount the market value of the property or the amount for which the property was attached
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question64 :How to calculate the court fee for a suit for specific performance of contract of sale?
A:The fee shall be computed on the amount of consideration
B:The fee shall be computed on the market value of the property
C:The fee shall be computed on half of the market value of the property
D:Any of the above
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question65:Which is correct according to Court fees and Suit Valuation Act for the purpose of Appeal?
A:One third of the court fee shall be payable at the time of admission
B:Balance amount is to be paid with in 10 days of admission
C:The time cannot be extended under any circumstances
D:Both (1) and (2) are correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question66:Section __________ deals with the procedure where objection is taken on appeal or revision that a suit or appeals was not properly valued for jurisdictional purpose. A:55
B:53
C:54
D:50
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question67:Where the memorandum of appeal is rejected on the ground that it was not presented with in the time allowed by the law of limitation then ____________. A:Whole fee will be refunded
B:One half will be refunded
C:No refund
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question68:Which is the correct option regarding the refund of court fee in case of compromise.
A:Refund will be given only in suits
B:Refund will be given in appeals
C:One half will be refunded in case of compromise of suit or appeals
D:None is correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question69:The fees paid by mistake or inadvertence shall ___________.
A:not be refunded
B:be adjusted but no refund
C:be refunded according to discretion
D:shall be ordered to be refunded as per section 70 of the Court fees and suit valuation Act
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question70:What is the court fee payable on the plaints and other documents in suits filed in village courts?
A:Rupees 100/
B:Rupees 50/
C:Rupees 200/
D:Court fee is exempted
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question71:Who is empowered to remit or reduce fee according to Court fees and Suit Valuation Act?
A:High Court
B:State Government
C:District Court
D:Presiding officer of the court
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question72:The additional court fee collected under section 76 of the court fees and Suit Valuation Act shall be credited with ___________.
A:Legal Benefit fund
B:State revenue
C:High Court
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question73:What is the maximum punishment for the violation of any rule made under the Court fees and Suit Valuation Act?
A:Six months imprisonment only
B:Fine up to Rs.500/
C:Fine up to Rs.1000/
D:Six Months Imprisonment or fine up to Rs.500/ or with both
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question74 :The rule making power for the supply of stamps to be used under the Court fees Act is __________.
A:With the High Court
B:With the Board of Revenue
C:With State Government
D:Either (1) or (4 )
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question75:What is the percentage of court fee payable on a plaint when the value of the subject matter exceeds fifteen thousand rupees in excess of fifteen thousand rupees up to fifty thousand rupeA:Four
B:Ten
C:Eight
D:Three
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question76:The fee payable on the application for permission to deposit revenue or rent either in the office of the collector or in the court is ___________. A:Five Rupees
B:Five percentage
C:Hundred rupees
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question77:The term “instrument “has been defined in section __________ of the Kerala Stamp Act .
A:2 (b)
B:2(c)
C:2(j)
D:2(d)
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question78:How the stamp duty will be charged in respect of an instrument relating to several distinct matters?
A:Based on the aggregate amount of duties of each instruments
B:Based on the highest amount of duties of each instruments
C:Based on the average of duties of each instruments
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question79:Which is the correct option regarding the use of adhesive stamps as per Kerala Stamp Act?
A:Certificate of Enrollment in the roll of advocate
B:Notarial Acts
C:(1) and (2) are not correct
D:Both (1) and (2) are correct
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question80:Which of the following is correct regarding the stamping of instruments?
A:All instruments chargeable with duty and executed by any person in the state of Kerala shall be stamped with in three months after it execution
B:All instruments chargeable with duty and executed by any person in the state of Kerala shall be stamped before or at the time of execution
C:All instruments chargeable with duty and executed by any person in the state of Kerala shall be stamped with in 60 days after it execution
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question81:A owes B Rs. 1000/ A sells a property to B the consideration being Rs. 500/ and release of previous debt Rs. 1000/. The stamp duty is payable on ____________. A:Rs.500
B:Rs. 1000/
C:Rs. 1500/
D:Either (2) or (3)
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question82:Who is empowered to fix the fair value of the land for the purpose of Kerala Stamp Act?
A:Government
B:Tahsildar
C:Collector
D:Revenue Divisional Officer
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question83:Who is bound to pay the transaction of ‘exchange’ in the absence of contract to contrary?
A:Parties in equal share
B:By the first party named
C:No stamp duty
D:None is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question84 :The authority for the purpose of adjudication as to the proper stamp according to Kerala Stamp Act is vested with _______________.
A:Government
B:Collector
C:District Judge
D:Any of the above
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question85:If the registering officer has reason to believe that the property is under valued then _________.
A:He will not allow to register under any circumstances
B:He may register and sent the document to Collector
C:He may refer the matter to the police
D:He may report the matter to the Government
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question86:Section _________ of the Kerala stamp Act deals with the Allowances for spoiled stamps.
A:4 5B
B:4 5C
C:4 7
D:4 2
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question87:How much amount is deducted by the Collector against the tendering of stamps which are not spoiled or rendered unfit, but for which he has no immediate use? A:Six paise for each rupee
B:Ten paise for each rupee
C:No deduction
D:Hundred rupees
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question88:What is the maximum penalty for failure to cancel adhesive stamps?
A:1000 Rupees
B:500/ rupees
C:10/ rupees
D:100/ rupees
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question89:Choose the correct option from the following.
A:The prosecution in respect of the offence under Kerala Stamp Act can be made with out sanction of the government
B:The collector or the specially authorized officer is empowered to grant sanction for prosecution
C:There is no provision for compounding of offence
D:Only (2) and (3) are correct
Correct Answer: OptionB
Question90:Which is correct regarding the place of trial in connection with the offence under stamp Act?
A:It can be tried in only any district in which the instrument is found
B:It can be tried anywhere in Kerala
C:It can be tried in any district in which the instrument is found as well as in any district in which the offence might be tried under Cr.P.C.
D:None is correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question91:Who is the authority to make rules in connection with the supply and sale of stamped papers?
A:Registrar of Stamps
B:High Court
C:District Collector
D:State Government
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question92:lf a presiding of the court other than High Court feels doubts as to the amount of duty to be paid in respect of any instrument under the proviso (a) to section 34 of the Kerala Stamp AA:High Court
B:District Court
C:District Collector
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question93:What is the Stamp fee payable for the articles of Association of a Company?
A:Rs. 200/
B:Rs.500/
C:Rs. 1000/
D:Rs.10000/
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question94 :The stamp fee for instrument of partnership deed under Kerala Stamp Act is __________.
A:Rs.1000/
B:Rs.2000/
C:Rs.10,000/
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question95:Which of the following is the correct option regarding the stamp duty for Power of attorney?
A:The stamp duty for power of attorney for all types are same
B:The stamp duty for the power of attorney in all cases depends on the value of the property
C:Both are incorrect
D:Both are correct
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question96:What is the maximum amount of stamp duty in connection with the pledge or pawn of the movable property when the secured amount exceeds five lakhs but does not twenty lakhs? A:5% of the amount
B:2% of the amount
C:Rs. 10,000/
D:Rs.5000/
Correct Answer: OptionD
Question97:Who among the following is competent to try the offence under Kerala Stamp Act?
A:District Magistrate
B:Executive Magistrate
C:First Class Judicial Magistrate
D:None of these
Correct Answer: OptionC
Question98:Which of the following is correct regarding the stamp duty payable on the Gift not being a settlement or will or transfer?
A:There is a fixed amount stamp duty and the duty will not change according to its value
B:The amount of stamp duty payable in all gifts is much lesser than other conveyance
C:There is no difference of stamp duty between gift and other mode of conveyance
D:The lesser rate is applicable to the gift in favour of father, mother, husband, wife, son, brother or sister compared to gift in favour of any other person Correct Answer: OptionD
Question99:What is the amount stamp duty payable on Chitty or Kuri Variola where the total amount subscribed exceeds Rs. 100/?
A:Twenty five rupees for every thousand rupees or part there of the total amount subscribed
B:Two percentage of the total amount of subscription
C:Twenty five percentage of the amount of subscription
D:None of the above is correct
Correct Answer: OptionA
Question100:Who is the authority to recover the duties and penalties under The Kerala Stamp Act?
A:Thahsildar
B:Collector
C:Revenue Divisional Officer
D:Any gazetted officer
Correct Answer: OptionB